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September 30, 2004

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Interesting. I think this article is quite persuasive. It makes sense that there would be a "moral ability" innate in humans. If this is indeed the case, though, wouldn't it also make sense that such an ability would be subject to evolutionary forces? The reason I bring this up is because I could easily see people extrapolating normative claims from the fact (if it is a fact) that humans have an innate moral capacity. I think this would be a mistake, though. Say the propositional content of our innate moral ability is discovered - does that mean that this content is normative? This is the classical is/ought distinction. Now, if we were to discover that it was not possible for humans to deviate from the content of their innate moral ability, then it wouldn't be possible to distinguish is from ought.

However, Chomsky strongly believes that humans have a creative capactiy when it comes to their innate linguistic abilities, which he sees as leaving room for freedom of the will. Logically, then, one should posit the same freedom morally. In this case, is can be distinguished from ought.

So what are your thoughts about how an innate moral ability interfaces with normative ethics?

Kyle-

What a fantastically interesting post. Thanks! I've got about 36 things I'd like to say, but I'll restrain myself to just a few.

As someone who is deeply skeptical that there is anything more than a conceptual gap between the propositional and the affective, I very much hope that your Aristotelian proposal that moral judgments rest on true perceptions of value is correct. My main observations is that it doesn't seem to me obvious that

(a) because the capacity for issuing moral judgments (which we can presume is tracked by the capacity to draw the moral/conventional distinction) is linked to emotional development that

(b)moral judgment is a kind of native emotional competence rather than being (or involving) a form of propositional knowledge.

Might it not be true that the appropriate moral development is in evidence because of some form of propositional knowledge? I gather that the poverty-of-stimulus argument is meant to deny this, since this alleged propositional knowledge is underdetermined by children's exposure to moral claims and propositions. So I'd like to know more about what the stimulus-knowledge gap consists in: What is that children 'know' about morality that we would not expect them to know given the amount of 'moral stimulus' they are subject to? After al I think we could identify a good many things about morality that children do not know. To pursue the Chomskyian analogy again, Chomsky posits his deep grammar as a way to explain the gap between children's exposure to the rules of their language and their apparent facility with it. What's the moral knowledge gap exactly? And is there something in the moral domain that would play the role here of deep grammar?

Among psychologists, there is a broad consensus that there is something built in that makes people have the sorts of moral views that we have. That still leaves open questions like what exactly that "something" is, whether it's one thing or many things, and what sorts of learning people undergo. All of those questions have been subjects of research, though (see, for instance, Piaget & Kohlberg on moral development). Shweder has argued that there are 3 kinds of morality: ethics of autonomy (based on rights, duties, liberties, etc.), ethics of community (based on cooperation, social goods, punishing slackers, etc.), and ethics of divinity (based on purity, sin, etc.).

There is strong evidence for the claim that our moral intuitions are based on emotions in addition to cognitions. See, for instance, Jon Haidt on Moral Emotions.

For a not-quite-up-to-date look at morality from the point of view of evolutionary psychology, I recommend Robert Wright's The Moral Animal.

Kyle:

I like this proposal. It makes a lot of sense to think that there is a or several deep moral grammar(s)analogous to the Chomskian linguistic deep grammar. There may be a parallel between the norms governing linguistic behavior (entering and exiting conversation) and the norms governing moral responses that can be exploited, in the way J. Heath does in his "Transcendental Argument for Morality" in PPR (2003).

A question I have about this thesis. Does moral innateness make the amoralist empirically or conceptually impossible? If moral nativism implies that moral responsiveness is not learned then there cannot be an amoralist, in the sense of a character who has learned the moral language but does not have the parallel moral responses. A character who lacked the approporiate moral responses could be a psychopath, lacking the appropriate affective equipment, but it appears could not be an amoralist.

Great post

Thanks for these comments. Mathew, the data I've cited suggests the pervasiveness in normally functioning humans of normative claims invoking harm norms. I'm trying to work this into my preferred metaethical view. What this means for normative ethical theory I'm not in a position to say right now, but I know that Joshua Greene looks at this in some papers, including an especially neat one on Trolley cases (http://www.csbmb.princeton.edu/~jdgreene/).

Michael, those are good questions. One proposal offered to undermine the negative conclusion of the POMS argument (the anti-empiricist conclusion) is that caregivers have more severe reactions to their children's violations of moral rules than they do to violations of conventional rules, or that they take greater pains to reinforce moral rules. Children would only have to distinguish between these different cues provided and respond accordingly. But it seems unlikely that this could do the trick. There just aren't enough of such cues. The speech patterns that call for children to obey moral rules are certainly no different than the ones that call for them to obey conventional rules. "Stop hitting your sister!" isn't distinguishable in its form or, usually, any other way from "Stop playing with your food!" A child will hear "Stop doing that!" after having done either (at least, mine will), and likely without any discernable difference in tone or severity or whatever. There doesn't seem to be enough available in typical behavioral correction or instruction that would cue a child to whether or not there's been a moral or a conventional rule violated. But children, from a young age, have the ability to make this distinction.

About the amoralist: there's a difference between a moral standard ("Thou shalt not hit thy sister") and a moral judgment or belief ("It is wrong to hit one's sister"). First, the judgment does, while the standard doesn't, have truth conditions. Second, endorsement of the standard does, while having the belief doesn't, entail the motivation to act in accordance with it. This is, I think, David Copp's position, which I like. It's compatible with my thesis and it permits the possibility of the amoralist.

Thanks for the informations

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